formula
Posted by michael gilbert on January 19, 2002 12:59 PM
Hi
I've used the following formula to calculate likely interest payable on a variable overdraft over qtr. However, I cannot figure out how to return a zero if I do not go overdrawn in a particular qtr. Any ideas? By the way looks like a great board.
Cheers
Michael
=(AVERAGEA(B41:D41)*-0.08)
Posted by Aladin Akyurek on January 19, 2002 1:21 PM
Michael --
I don't know what "not go overdrawn" means: Would you care to explain?
And, I notice that you use AVERAGEA (not AVERAGE). Why?
Aladin
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Posted by Aladin -- Jack in the UK on January 20, 2002 11:53 AM
Explained
Hi Aladin, good to chat, read the post and:
I don't know what "not go overdrawn" means: Would you care to explain? Means HAS money more than 0 else (less than zero means overdrawn - bank account words)
And, I notice that you use AVERAGEA (not AVERAGE). Why? Thus i guess is a tipo error you right
Take care mate
HTH
Rdgs
Your friend Jack
Posted by Aladin Akyurek on January 20, 2002 12:34 PM
Re: Explained
Jack: Thanks for the explanation. Given the explanation, I'd use
=IF(SUM(B41:D41)>0,AVERAGE(B41:D41)*-0.08,0)
assuming that B41:D41 houses numbers.
Would this be adequate?
Aladin
