Payment solving

[Davidns]

Is there a way to solve for payment when the final payment (FV) is paid one month after the final monthly payment (rather then concurrent with the last payment)?
Thanks

 

[gehusi]

You'll need to clarify as the question you posed is a bit vague. Sample data would be helpful as well.

 

[AlphaFrog]

Syntax for the FV function...
FV(rate, nper, pmt, pv, type)

The type argument is the number 0 or 1 and indicates when payments are due. If type is omitted, it is assumed to be 0.
0 = At the end of the period
1 = At the beginning of the period

Is that what you were asking?

 

[Davidns]

Actually it isn't. Either way, the formula assumes that the final payment (FV) is paid concurrent with the last payment (pmt). My question is if there is a way to solve assuming that the final payment (FV) is made subsequent to the last payment - generally would need one month after, but sometimes longer.

I did a work around and first solved for the PV of the FV discounted one month back, then put that in as FV, but that is a bit cumbersome. Hoping there is a formula to solve directly.

Thanks

 

[brettdj]

I'm also not 100% clear.

But if you mean that the FV needs to be further inflated for a time delay in receiving funds then you could take a 1 month FV of the FV

ie

If you
- receive a 6% return for paying in $100 every year for 10 years and
- this final payment is delayed by one month at the same 6% rate then this calc "rolls" the FV forward by one month

=FV(6%/12,1,0,FV(6%,10,100))

Cheers

Dave