**Here's a link to the table I'm working on.**

https://drive.google.com/open?id=11xxNJBIXnwgfm8E5Q27U5wF8xbMMPeB_

note:

https://drive.google.com/open?id=11xxNJBIXnwgfm8E5Q27U5wF8xbMMPeB_

note:

I'm expecting either a 61.8% or a 78.6% Fibonacci retracement so I'm using those percentages.

I'm trying to calculate the return of a strategy where you short the coming bear market with margin for the first 40% of the decline, and then go marginless for the remainder of the decline.

Then in the new Bull Market Going long with margin for the first 150% or 300% then going marginless for the remaining 111.8% or 167.3%

The problem I'm having is when I increase the 300% to 400% my final number should get bigger because it means I'll be using margin for an extra 100% increase. so clearly the value should be higher. I'm pretty sure I know what the problem is but I don't know how to do the formula.

When I'm increasing the 300 to 400 it decreases the amount I'm multiplying the second part of the move by.

1st part - ($10,000 plus your interest from the bear) times 3 with margin, times 300%

2nd part - (Initial investment+interest earned in part 1 above)*(467.3-300) (which = 167.3)

so ($10,000+int)*(167.3)

But when I increase the 300 to 400 I'm saying

1st part - ($10,000 plus your interest from the bear) times 3 with margin, times 400%

2nd part - (Initial investment+interest earned in part 1 above)*(467.3-400) (which = 67.3)

so ($10,000+int)*(67.3)

Which isn't right in either case. what I need to do, is use a compounding formula to take a daily average from the average I'm using/expecting. that way the change isn't so abrupt and using an inaccurate multiplier.

I provided a link above. Thanks to anyone that even tries to understand and solve this.

**Thanks for your time. It's generous of you to help someone you'll never meet. It is appreciated.**